missy
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Post by missy on Apr 2, 2010 22:28:30 GMT -5
Did Jesus go to hell after his death on the cross? I have read different views on this, such as no, he did not because he told the thief that "today you will be with me in paradise." Another school of thought was that Ephesians 4:9 was not referring to hell (as for the wicked) but as hades (the temporary place). Another school of thought I've come across is that he HAD to go to hell (as for the wicked) in order to get the keys of hell. Also, another is that he was human and took on our sin, and therefore must have had to go to hell (for the wicked) in order to have conquered and reconciled for us. Just curious as to what your thoughts are on this subject, while I realize that this may be "one of those questions" to never be answered fully here on this earth.
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Post by Mike Miller on Apr 22, 2010 11:03:04 GMT -5
Sorry it has taken so long. I've been really jammed up, and I just returned yesterday from Seattle. The question requires a longer answer than I can give here, but let me just summarize the issue. Then you can ask follow-up questions if you need to.
Basically, the issue arises because of the phrase "He descended into hell," which is found in the Apostles' Creed. However, that phrase didn't appear in the earliest forms of the creed (which developed over a period of over 500 years) until about 390 A.D. Irenaeus and Tertullian, for example, never used it in their formulations (maybe the name "Apostles' Creed" is a misnomer?). Moreover, even the earliest appearance of the phrase was understood, not that Jesus went to hell, but that he went to the grave. The concept of Jesus actually going to hell is much more recent.
The real question, however, is whether the concept of Jesus going to hell appears in Scripture, and essentially 5 passages are relied upon for support of the idea that He in fact did so: Acts 2:27; Romans 10:6-7; Ephesians 4:8-9; 1 Peter 3:18-20; and 1 Peter 4:6.
Acts 2:27. The Greek word here--Hades--does not necessarily mean "hell," but can also refer simply to "the grave." That seems to be the idea in this context, namely that Jesus was not abandoned to the grave to decay (like David), but that He was raised instead (see verse 29).
Romans 10:6-7. Again, context is crucial, as this passage is teaching that Jesus is accessible to us. He is not in a place that is inaccessibly high (heaven) or inaccessibly low (the abyss). Moreover, the word "abyss" is used frequently in the Greek translation of the Old Testament (the Septuagint) to refer to the depths of the ocean.
Ephesians 4:8-9. Linguistically, the phrase "the lower regions of the earth," is best taken as a genitive of apposition. What? Just like when we say things like "the city of New Orleans," we don't mean "the city part of New Orleans." We mean, "the city, which is New Orleans." Similarly, this is best understood as "the lower regions, which are the earth." So, what does that mean? It's either referring to Jesus descent to earth in His incarnation (coming as a baby) or to the coming of the Holy Spirit at Pentecost (which happened after His ascent). I tend to lean toward the reference to the virgin birth, though I can't be dogmatic about it.
1 Peter 3:18-20 and 1 Peter 4:6. I'm taking these both together because I think they're basically talking about the same thing. Essentially, who are those in prison or those who are dead that Jesus preached to? Did He go and preach victory to the dead? Did He go and present the Gospel to the dead who are in hell? Neither of these interpretations lines up with the rest of Scripture. First, we have no other evidence that Jesus went to boast over those who were already in hell. Second, to suggest (as some have) that He went to hell to give them a second chance is clearly unbiblical, for after we die, we are out of chances (see Luke 16:19-31 and Hebrews 9:27).
A better interpretation is that this refers to the Spirit of Jesus being the same Spirit that preached to those who are now in hell while they were living. The context of 1 Peter 3 seems to make this clear in that Peter is writing to those who are being persecuted. He encourages them to proclaim the Gospel and uses Noah as an example of one who preached in a day of difficulty. Yet it was the same Spirit of Christ preaching through Noah that is preaching through them in their day (and through us in our day). This interpretation also finds support in 1 Peter 1:11 (the Spirit of Christ speaking through the OT prophets) and 1 Peter 2:5 (Noah called a preacher of righteousness).
Furthermore, the Bible mitigates against the possibility of Jesus actually going to hell when He died. For example, He said to the criminal on the cross, "today you will be with Me in Paradise" (Luke 23:24), and His final cry was "Father, into your hands I commit my spirit" (Luke 23:46). Also, His statement, "It is finished" (John 19:30), seems to indicate that nothing was left for Him to do. His work was accomplished.
Therefore, the answer to your question, "Did Jesus go to hell?" is no.
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