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Post by Bill Yates on Mar 15, 2008 22:36:12 GMT -5
In a recent bible study we discussed the characteristics of the Holy Spirit, and looked at several New Testament references. In John 14:16, John 14:26, and John 15:26; Jesus speaks of God sending a helper to assist us. In John 16:7, Jesus explains that by him leaving we will benefit from him sending the Holy Spirit; who will not come if he did not leave. This is what got me thinking about the Holy Spirits involvement in the Old Testament prior to Jesus' time on earth. In the Old Testament we see references to the "Spirit of God": - Genesis 1:2 the Spirit of God present - Genesis 6:3 the Spirit of God "will not abide in (contend with) man forever". The Spirit of God active in a man. - Exodus 31:3 Bezalel is filled with the Spirit of God. - Numbers 24:2 the Spirit of God comes upon Balaam. - Judges 3:10 the Spirit of the Lord was upon Othniel. - Judges 15:14 the Spirit of the Lord upon Samson. - 1 Samuel 16:14 the Spirit of the Lord leaves Saul and a harmful spirit from the Lord tormented him. harmful spirit? ?? Is this like the use of a spirit in 2 Chronicles 18:19-22. - 2 Samuel 23:2 the Spirit of the Lord speaks through David. - Isaiah 63:10-14 remembering the presence of the Holy Spirit with Moses. Ezekiel 11:19 a new spirit put within the people of Israel. I see the Holy Spirit as a very active component in my life and in the books of the New Testament. Henry Blackaby teaches that God spoke through many different ways in the Old Testament (angels, visions, dreams, miraculous signs, a gentle whisper, and more). Did the Holy Spirit work in the same ways in the Old Testament as it does now; or does John 16:7 show us that the Holy Spirit now works in a different manner. Most verses I read in the Old Testament refer to the "Spirit of God". Is this the same as the Holy Spirit? Did the Spirit intercede as it does now for me? I was told that there is a verse in the Old Testament that states that David was filled with the Spirit, but I have been unable to find it so far. I fear that this is a simple concept that I have already been taught, but have forgotten.
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Post by david76 on Mar 18, 2008 8:13:35 GMT -5
Also check out Psalm 51:11.
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Post by Bill Yates on Mar 23, 2008 19:18:17 GMT -5
I appreciate the Psalms 51:11 reference. I found a commentary on that verse, which says the Old Testament does not completely describe the person hood of the Holy Spirit. The commentary goes on to say that David was aware of his sin and was aware that he needed God's Spirit with him; therefore he was afraid that his sin would cause God's Spirit to be taken away. I have felt that way when I am not earnestly in the word, and I do not feel the presence of the Holy Spirit as I have once before. It seems that the Holy Spirit was with those in the Old Testament, but I guess what I am trying to determine is did it play a different role in their lives than in mine today?
While studying scripture in preparation for Easter, I came across a passage which I think is relevant to my questions about the Holy Spirit. In John 20:22, as Jesus is speaking with the disciples after his resurrection, he breathed on them and said, "Receive the Holy Spirit". Again, I found a commentary that suggest that this is a gift given to the disciples to assist them with the tasks that they will preform, as they go out and start the church. It then gave reference to it being a foreshadowing of the fullness of the spirit, which will be seen at Pentecost. Is the Holy Spirit that the disciples receive here the same Holy Spirit that I have?
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Post by Mike Miller on Mar 25, 2008 11:26:53 GMT -5
Another great question. I believe this is an issue that is greatly misunderstood today.
First, let me say that the Holy Spirit was obviously present and active in the Old Testament. I don't know of anyone who would deny this. The real question relates to the manner and extent of the work of the Holy Spirit in the Old Testament [by the way, the Holy Spirit is referred to as the Spirit of God, the Spirit of Christ, or sometimes just the Spirit].
The common belief is that the Holy Spirit did not dwell within all believers in the Old Testament as He does today. Some say that He did not dwell in believers until Pentecost. I disagree. My conviction, based on Scripture, is that He has always dwelt within believers. This will necessitate a rather lengthy post, so bear with me.
In John 3, Jesus rebukes a Pharisee named Nicodemus for not understanding the role of the Holy Spirit in conversion. Jesus is clear that "unless one is born again he cannot see the kingdom of God." He goes on to explain that "unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God." This rebirth is something that we cannot accomplish ourselves, as John explains in John 1:13--it is not our will, but but God's. Titus 3:5 tells us that regeneration (new birth) is accomplished by the Holy Spirit. In other words, the only way someone can be saved is by being born again, and that only happens when the Holy Spirit comes into someone's life. Without the Spirit, we are still dead in our sins (John 6:63; Ephesians 2:1-10) and we cannot understand the things of God (1 Corinthians 2:6-16).
Therefore, we are left with only three possible conclusions: 1) When Jesus said that no one can be saved without being born again, He was wrong; 2) No one was saved before Pentecost; or 3) People who were saved prior to Pentecost were born again, meaning they were made alive by the Holy Spirit. Well, if you go with number 1, we have other things to discuss. If you go with number 2, you have never read the Old or New Testaments, for they both bear witness to salvation of people prior to Pentecost. Therefore, the only possible conclusion for the person who believes the Bible is number 3.
But what about John 7:39; John 14, John 20:22, Pentecost, and the other times people in Acts received the Holy Spirit? Simply, several times you see references to being "baptized with the Holy Spirit" in the New Testament (Matthew 3:11; John 1:33). In fact, after Jesus breathed on them in John 20, He said in Acts 1:5, "you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit not many days from now," which was clearly a reference to Pentecost. Therefore, I see Pentecost as the baptism of the Holy Spirit, which is a special enduement with power that is not the same as regeneration and the indwelling of the Holy Spirit. In other words, people have always been saved by regeneration, but there is something special that happens at times that brings a certain power. This is called the baptism of the Holy Spirit.
I know of no other way to explain the Holy Spirit working in and through the disciples in Luke 10 (and revealing spiritual truth, which can only happen to those who have the Spirit, 1 Corinthians 2) and what happened on Pentecost. If we take Jesus' words in John 3 as truth, then no one has been saved without new birth, which happens by the Holy Spirit. But it is clear that something special happened on Pentecost.
As for John 7:39, I believe this was a reference to Pentecost. In John 14, Jesus was talking about His death. At the time, He was their Counselor (Comforter, Helper). The Holy Spirit would assume that role after Jesus was gone from them bodily. John 20:22 is quite disputed, but I hold to the interpretation that it was an empowering for ministry that was somewhat symbolic in nature.
Well, that's a lot, and really only a surface treatment of a large concept. Feel free to chime in with more questions if I can clarify.
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