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Post by Bill Yates on Nov 24, 2008 21:39:50 GMT -5
I have recently been studying Jesus' ministry; specifically the times that Jesus reveals, to the disciples, his future suffering, death, and resurrection. During my studies I have come across a reference to Isaiah 53; where it seems obvious that the passage is foretelling of Christ, his sufferings, death, and the opportunity it gives us to be accounted righteous. Though, in researching the passage I have come across several that believe the passage is not referring to Christ, but rather Israel.
Did the people, before and during Jesus' ministry, believe Isaiah 53 was speaking of Christ or speaking of Israel? It seems obvious by the disciples lack of understanding that they must not have taken the passage into consideration or did not understand its message; or did it mean that the Holy Spirit did not choose to reveal the Old Testament prophecies in a way that would allow them to understand its message. I know they wanted to have a messiah that would be an earthly king; but why did they not realize that he would be a Suffering Servant, as several passages in Isaiah state?
I also have read an argument that says the passage is referring to Israel because 53:10 is speaking of Israel's future offsprings and that it will live for a long time; rather than us (the offspring) who benefit from his perfect and complete, suffering. What is your discernment of the section of the verse which states he will prolong his days. Is this speaking of his resurrection.
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Post by Bill Yates on Nov 26, 2008 21:50:00 GMT -5
Why did they not understand the future role of the Messiah as the suffering servant? Looking back at an earlier post "why not tell?", it was not the plan of God to reveal that to them in full, until the glorious resurrection of my Lord. I hope the Holy Spirit plans on revealing to me a lot more about my Savior. What a responsibility I would then have for the scripture that was made clearer to me. I am like Peter. I confess Jesus as my Savior, but do not understand all the scripture. I long to have the Holy Spirit reveal more to me.
I still ask the question regarding Isaiah 53. Is it not speaking of Jesus?
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Post by Mike Miller on Dec 1, 2008 12:00:26 GMT -5
Hey, Bill. Sorry for the delay. I've been a little swamped, and I've been looking into your question. Essentially, I don't know what the Jews thought of the passage, but the New Testament makes clear that Isaiah 53 is a prophecy about Jesus.
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Post by Justin Langford on Dec 2, 2008 12:42:40 GMT -5
Bill, I am a friend of Mike's and was directed to your question. If the disciples didn't make the connection between Christ and Isa 53, they eventually got it. Matthew (in Matt 8:17) quotes Isa 53:4 as a direct fulfillment of Jesus healing the sick and taking up our infirmities. Luke 22:37 has Jesus saying that Isa 53:12 must be fulfilled in him. John (in John 12:38) quotes Isa 53:1 as a fulfillment that the Jews would not believe in the signs which Jesus performed. In addition, the "lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world" in John 1:29 has long been interpreted as the "lamb led to the slaughter" in Isa 53:7. Then, the eunuch asks Philip who Isaiah is speaking of in Isa 53:7-8 and Philip responds by telling him of the gospel about Jesus (Acts 8:32-35). Therefore, in the Gospels and Acts we see that not only the disciples but Jesus himself saw a certain fulfillment of Isa 53 in Jesus.
The final example I would offer is from 1 Peter 2:18-25. In Peter's instructions to slaves he reminds them that they were called to suffer just as Christ suffered on behalf of us. The OT quotation here comes from Isa 53:9, thus drawing the reader to make the connection between Christ's suffering and the suffering servant of Isa 53. Allusions to Isa 53 follow in 1 Peter 2:23-25. It is obvious that Peter saw Jesus as the suffering servant of Isa 53.
These examples, for me, display that at least after the resurrection the disciples understood that Jesus has significant affinities with the suffering servant of Isa 53.
Hope this helps some. Excellent question!
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Post by Mike Miller on Dec 2, 2008 12:48:57 GMT -5
Thanks for responding, Justin. I knew this was right up your alley. Man, you're smart!
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Post by Bill Yates on Dec 2, 2008 22:16:16 GMT -5
Thank you Justin for your help.
I do feel confident that Isaiah 53 is a prophecy referencing the future suffering of Christ. Wow, what a sovereign Lord, who can complete his precise plan.
In Luke 18:31-34, Jesus is a third time foretelling of his death, and references in vs.31 that what is written by the prophets will be completed in Christ.
In vs. 34, am I correct in interpreting this to say that the disciples did not understand the message Jesus was telling them, because the Holy Spirit did not allow them to discern it. Could this not also be a reason why, before Jesus' resurrection, they might not have completely understood.
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Post by Justin Langford on Dec 3, 2008 12:37:27 GMT -5
Bill, I think you are right with that understanding. Many times we see that John makes reference to the fact that the disciples did not understand what Jesus said (specifically in relation to his quotation of OT Scripture) until after he had been glorified. Two insightful examples are John 2:22 and 12:16. This 'misunderstanding' on the part of the disciples (and especially the Jews in general as portrayed in the Gospel of John), I believe, is due to the fact that the Spirit had not yet been given since Jesus had not yet been glorified. For this see John 7:37-39.
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