Post by Mike Miller on Jan 15, 2014 11:56:16 GMT -5
The following is the dialogue following an excellent question posed to me privately by a church member in a private message. He has given me permission to post it here. It deals with some fairly deep theological and philosophical issues, so if I can clarify anything, or if you would like to join the discussion, feel free to post your questions or comments.
Question:
For some time now, I have had as a fundamental axiom that God's utmost affection is His own glory. A corollary would then be that whatever God does is for His own glory.
I believe that the purpose of the creation of the universe is to be (if you will) glory mirrors, that is, this world is a means by which God's glory is reflected back to God.
Several months ago, I came across the self-critical rebuttal which said, "if this is true, then God 'needs' creation to glorify Himself, just like I 'need' a mirror to see myself."
I understand that perhaps a hangup is any kind of 'need' we have has to come from outside ourselves (air, water, etc.) whereas God can just create it out of nothing. So maybe it is just a misunderstanding of the word 'need.' I also understand (from the guest speaker) that God's desire to glorify Himself is not an ontological need, that is, if He does not get it, He will not mutate (grow sick, die, cease to exist), and so this is not really a need.
As you may have discerned, I am trying to avoid issue with Acts 17, where God does not need man or anything for that matter.
I am also aware though that in order for God to 'flex' His attributes of forgiveness, mercy, patience, etc. He "needs" someone to show forgiveness, mercy, patience, etc. These attributes do not seem to be possible to be shown within the Trinity, because God does not sin. I am aware that God for eternity past did not, therefore flex some attributes. Now God does not necessarily need to display His attributes in order for them to actually exist, but He does seem to "need" an object for them to terminate on in order for them/Him (doctrine of the simplicity of God) to be glorified.
I suppose my question is, is this axiom just not true?
Answer:
Let's look at this another way. Why does God need for His attributes to be displayed in order for Him to be glorified? You stated that He doesn't need to display them in order for them to exist, but you imply that He needs to display them in order for Him to be glorified. That would also imply that God was not (not fully, at least) glorified before creation. While an object of certain of His attributes is necessary for God to display those attributes, I would suggest that God is no less glorified if those attributes are never displayed. Therefore, ultimately God does not need to display His attributes to anyone other than Himself (within the Trinity) in order to be glorified. Since those attributes exist, God is eternally glorified within Himself with and by the perfect understanding and appreciation of all that He is. This is no less true before creation than after.
Now, if God chooses to display certain attributes, then He is logically required to meet the conditions that His very nature demands in order to put those attributes on display. In other words, for God to choose to display His creativity, He had to create. That creativity did not come into existence the moment He created, but it was displayed in what He did (does). Similarly, His grace did not begin when Adam fell, but it was put on display. So, God did not (and does not) need man in order have any ontological needs met or in order to be glorified in all His attributes. Instead, He freely chose to put those attributes on glorious display through the creating and saving of sinners.
Did any of that make any sense?
Question:
Yes it makes sense. The reasoning seems very similar to Jonathan Edwards in his work, "The End for which God Created the World." There is one paragraph where he tries to angst this rebuttal, and I know for me, the light just did not come on in my head.
After thinking about it and rereading the section in Jonathan Edwards' work, I know where my hangup is. The question is easy to ask:
How does an immutable God have feelings?
Answer:
Immutability applies to God's being and purposes (and, by extension, His promises). I hold to the immutability of God, but I reject the idea that He does not have emotions. In Scripture, we see a God who does not change in who He is or what He wills (or what He says He will do). We also see a God who rejoices, burns with anger, loves, and grieves. However, His grief is not subject to the whims of man, but--as is articulated in the doctrine of impassibility--He grieves (and experiences other emotions) as He has determined in Himself to do so.
Question:
So would this be classified more like a mystery?
Answer:
This is a mystery in that we tend to think of God's attributes and His emotions in terms of human attributes and emotions. Since we do not hold His incommunicable attributes or experience emotions as He does, we can talk about such things, but we can never fully grasp them.
Question:
After listening to your input and rereading the paragraph in "The End for which God Created the World." I have a thought that I would like you to hear and see what you think if you don't mind.
God created the universe to be a means by which God's glory could be reflected (or refracted) back to Himself. God did this because He desired to. How do we avoid God needing creation to glorify Himself? Because it's existence is because of God's desire to create it; it's existence is dependent on God, not the other way around (you and Edwards).
How then does it not seem that God somehow was unable to glorify Himself fully in eternity past before He created creation?
Answer: The reality is that all things that come to pass have been ordained by God before the foundation of the world. Since God's decrees are as certain as if they have already happened (I am thinking about the prophetic past in Hebrew almost), then the moment before He created creation, He was being glorified as if it was already existing, because since God decreed it, it is just as good as done.
In my mind, this answers a myriad of questions like God changing His mind. This also solidifies even more the reality that no one can rob God of glory, for at the moment of creation, all the glory that God will receive from all the events that will happen (our perspective), are as good as if all of eternity future had already occurred because God has decreed all that will occur, and therefore God is "already" glorified because it is as good as done. God is just as glorious and glorified in eternity past without creation because He had decreed that He will glorify Himself in a Creation.
I hope that makes sense.
Answer:
It does make sense, particularly when we accept that God's decrees are eternal and immutable.
Question:
For some time now, I have had as a fundamental axiom that God's utmost affection is His own glory. A corollary would then be that whatever God does is for His own glory.
I believe that the purpose of the creation of the universe is to be (if you will) glory mirrors, that is, this world is a means by which God's glory is reflected back to God.
Several months ago, I came across the self-critical rebuttal which said, "if this is true, then God 'needs' creation to glorify Himself, just like I 'need' a mirror to see myself."
I understand that perhaps a hangup is any kind of 'need' we have has to come from outside ourselves (air, water, etc.) whereas God can just create it out of nothing. So maybe it is just a misunderstanding of the word 'need.' I also understand (from the guest speaker) that God's desire to glorify Himself is not an ontological need, that is, if He does not get it, He will not mutate (grow sick, die, cease to exist), and so this is not really a need.
As you may have discerned, I am trying to avoid issue with Acts 17, where God does not need man or anything for that matter.
I am also aware though that in order for God to 'flex' His attributes of forgiveness, mercy, patience, etc. He "needs" someone to show forgiveness, mercy, patience, etc. These attributes do not seem to be possible to be shown within the Trinity, because God does not sin. I am aware that God for eternity past did not, therefore flex some attributes. Now God does not necessarily need to display His attributes in order for them to actually exist, but He does seem to "need" an object for them to terminate on in order for them/Him (doctrine of the simplicity of God) to be glorified.
I suppose my question is, is this axiom just not true?
Answer:
Let's look at this another way. Why does God need for His attributes to be displayed in order for Him to be glorified? You stated that He doesn't need to display them in order for them to exist, but you imply that He needs to display them in order for Him to be glorified. That would also imply that God was not (not fully, at least) glorified before creation. While an object of certain of His attributes is necessary for God to display those attributes, I would suggest that God is no less glorified if those attributes are never displayed. Therefore, ultimately God does not need to display His attributes to anyone other than Himself (within the Trinity) in order to be glorified. Since those attributes exist, God is eternally glorified within Himself with and by the perfect understanding and appreciation of all that He is. This is no less true before creation than after.
Now, if God chooses to display certain attributes, then He is logically required to meet the conditions that His very nature demands in order to put those attributes on display. In other words, for God to choose to display His creativity, He had to create. That creativity did not come into existence the moment He created, but it was displayed in what He did (does). Similarly, His grace did not begin when Adam fell, but it was put on display. So, God did not (and does not) need man in order have any ontological needs met or in order to be glorified in all His attributes. Instead, He freely chose to put those attributes on glorious display through the creating and saving of sinners.
Did any of that make any sense?
Question:
Yes it makes sense. The reasoning seems very similar to Jonathan Edwards in his work, "The End for which God Created the World." There is one paragraph where he tries to angst this rebuttal, and I know for me, the light just did not come on in my head.
After thinking about it and rereading the section in Jonathan Edwards' work, I know where my hangup is. The question is easy to ask:
How does an immutable God have feelings?
Answer:
Immutability applies to God's being and purposes (and, by extension, His promises). I hold to the immutability of God, but I reject the idea that He does not have emotions. In Scripture, we see a God who does not change in who He is or what He wills (or what He says He will do). We also see a God who rejoices, burns with anger, loves, and grieves. However, His grief is not subject to the whims of man, but--as is articulated in the doctrine of impassibility--He grieves (and experiences other emotions) as He has determined in Himself to do so.
Question:
So would this be classified more like a mystery?
Answer:
This is a mystery in that we tend to think of God's attributes and His emotions in terms of human attributes and emotions. Since we do not hold His incommunicable attributes or experience emotions as He does, we can talk about such things, but we can never fully grasp them.
Question:
After listening to your input and rereading the paragraph in "The End for which God Created the World." I have a thought that I would like you to hear and see what you think if you don't mind.
God created the universe to be a means by which God's glory could be reflected (or refracted) back to Himself. God did this because He desired to. How do we avoid God needing creation to glorify Himself? Because it's existence is because of God's desire to create it; it's existence is dependent on God, not the other way around (you and Edwards).
How then does it not seem that God somehow was unable to glorify Himself fully in eternity past before He created creation?
Answer: The reality is that all things that come to pass have been ordained by God before the foundation of the world. Since God's decrees are as certain as if they have already happened (I am thinking about the prophetic past in Hebrew almost), then the moment before He created creation, He was being glorified as if it was already existing, because since God decreed it, it is just as good as done.
In my mind, this answers a myriad of questions like God changing His mind. This also solidifies even more the reality that no one can rob God of glory, for at the moment of creation, all the glory that God will receive from all the events that will happen (our perspective), are as good as if all of eternity future had already occurred because God has decreed all that will occur, and therefore God is "already" glorified because it is as good as done. God is just as glorious and glorified in eternity past without creation because He had decreed that He will glorify Himself in a Creation.
I hope that makes sense.
Answer:
It does make sense, particularly when we accept that God's decrees are eternal and immutable.