Post by Mike Miller on Jun 11, 2020 9:25:52 GMT -5
Hi. Thanks for the question. He said that because in that moment He took on our sin. As 2 Corinthians 5:21 says, God "made him to be sin." His suffering was so much more than physical. He suffered all the consequences of our sin, meaning he experienced our guilt and shame, and He suffered the wrath of God that we deserve. Therefore, in that moment, He was forsaken by God, which is part of the result of our sin. Now, as to why He asked "why," we are seeing His full humanity on display. It isn't so much a statement of ignorance as one of despair. Moreover, He was also quoting Psalm 22, which is what we call a "Messianic Psalm." That means that in addition to its original context, it has a further meaning related to the coming Messiah, who is Jesus. So in quoting the first verse of Psalm 22, Jesus was referencing the entire psalm, which means He was also claiming His assurance that God would deliver Him from His suffering (which is how Psalm 22 ends).