question about John

[lisa]

Pastor Mike,

I have a question about something I am reading in John I am hoping you can help me with understanding. It's in John 10:34-39. Jesus tells the crowd "Is it not written in your Law 'I have said you are gods"? Then He says "what about the One He set apart as His very own? It almost sounds like He is saying "everyone is a god, but I was set apart to be the special Son of God". I looked up the passage in Psalm 82:6 that is given as a reference, but that was just as confusing!

[Mike Miller]

Thanks for the great question. I'm sorry I'm so late in responding, but with the holidays I've been quite a bit behind on some things.

In John 10, Jesus is specifically responding to the criticism leveled by the Jews that He was blaspheming because He called Himself Son of God. He quotes Psalm 82, which is a text addressed to the Israelites (though some interpreters think it only addresses Israel's judges). They had been given the law and were to serve as God's representatives, but they failed miserably. Thus, while in Psalm 82 God tells them that they were in effect supposed to be His representatives around them, they failed. Instead of being true gods, then, they will die like men (a bit of sarcasm on God's part perhaps?).

So, in John 10, Jesus points out the absurdity that even though the Jews had been called gods (and "sons of the Most High," also in Psalm 86), and they didn't balk at that, they were mad at Him for calling Himself God's Son.

We don't need to press Jesus' words further than He intended them. He was not saying that people are really gods, but was showing the Jews how weak their argument against Him was. I know it's a tough passage to understand in our context, but based on the rest of Scripture as well as ancient Jewish interpretations of Psalm 82, this perspective seems to be the most reasonable.

[lisa]

Okay, that (kinda) makes sense! I guess you had to be there...

I have another question, too, if it's okay?

I don't understand why Jesus is called God's "son". In some places in the Bible it seems like God is superior (Jesus said He learned from God, was sent by Him, submitted to His will, etc) but in other place it is clear that Jesus and God are equal ("I and the Father am one", I AM, "If you have seen me you have seen the Father"). Plus, it doesn't seem like Jesus was ominiscient and stuff like God is, because He didn't know when He was coming back, but at the same time He could cast out demons and know what people were thinking (plus the whole raising the dead thing!) that only God can do. In the Garden of Gethsemene He prayed for God to take away His coming death, but then said He would do God's will.....wasn't it His will, too? I guess it just doesn't make sense...I mean, I can kind of understand God being three different entities with different personalities and stuff, but does Jesus and the Holy Spirit have equal standing in the Trinity, or is God (Father) kind of in charge? Sorry...this is probably a really stupid question!

[Mike Miller]

This is not a stupid question at all, and most Christians at some time wrestle with understanding the Trinity. There is only one God, and He has eternally existed as three distinct persons: Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. They are completely equal in essence and nature, but they fulfill different roles. The Son does submits to the will of the Father, and the Holy Spirit submits to the will of the Father and the Son.

While Jesus was in the flesh, He set aside some of His divine privileges, such as omnipresence (being everywhere at once). However, while He was human, He was still God. This is a mystery to us, but not to God. God is unique, and although we can know Him, we cannot ever fully comprehend Him.